Wow!!....check Out My Dyno!
Originally Posted by MexicoBlue
Actually Billy, that would indicate 543 chp (you multiply by 1.22, not 1.18 to get back up to your crank hp if you lost 18% to drivetrain - common mistake). Even better! Sweet . . . I'm going to claim your dyno sheet as my own!!! (j/k sort of)
Originally Posted by deputydog95
how did you do the math on that one? what would 1.18 translate to as far as driveline loss?
No idea if that made any sense. I'm operating on a lot of wine here. But the underlying principle is that actual hp loss is a larger % of your wheel hp than your crank hp, yet drvetrain loss is usually quoted as a reduction FROM crank hp, but the conversion back TO crank hp requires a higher multiple as a result.
Sorry for the thread jack, but it's a frequent mistake, that almost defies common sense, so its understandable why the conversion back to crank hp is so often done with the wrong multiple.
- Russ
Last edited by MexicoBlue; May 27, 2006 at 12:17 AM.
1 - From Russ's example
2 - HP at the crank = 500 = X
3 - Hp at the wheels = 400
4 - loss due to drivetrain = 500 – 400 = 100 = Y
................................................( X - 400 = Y )
5 - 100 / 500 = 0.20 (20% loss due to drivetrain)
......Y / X = 0.20
6 - 100 / 400 = 0.25 (percentage of loss to the wheels HP ) = Z
7 - so 400 x 1.25 = 500
8 - let’s apply this on BPANOS’s car
9 - we don’t know the HP at the crank lets call it = X......................#2
10 - HP at the wheels = 444.88
11 - We don’t know the loss due drivetrain let’s call it = Y which is = (X – 444.88 = Y )...............#4
12 - Y / X = 0.18 (18% loss due to drivetrain ) .............#5
13 - Y / X = Z we don’t know the percentage due to the wheels HP #6
14 – .........................................Y = X – 444.88 from .....................#11
15 – Y / X = 0.18 that means Y = 0.18X..............#12........................mult iply both side by X
16 – Y = X – 444.88 ...................= 0.18X .............................from #14 & #15
17 - X – 444.88 ...........................= 0.18X
18 - X – 444.88 – 0.18X .............= 0.18X – 0.18X ..................add - 0.18 for both side
19 - X – 444.88 – 0.18X .............= zero ...................................0.18 - 0.18 cancel eachother
20 - X- 444.88 +444.88 – 0.18X= zero + 444.88 ....................add 444.88 for both side
21 - X – 0.18X ............................= 444.88 ............................. - 444.88 + 444.88 cancel
22 - X(1 – 0.18) ..........................= 444.88 ...............................commen factor X
23 - X( 0.82 ) ..............................= 444.88 .................................divide by 0.82
24 - X( 0.82 ) / (0.82) .................= 444.88 / (0.82)
25 - X = 542. 54 which is 543 = X the HP at crank ......... .........#2
from #4 ..........X - 444.88 = Y which is 543 - 444.88 = 98.12 = Y
lose due drivtrain = 98.12
from #6 ..........98.12 / 444.88 = 0.22 (22% percentage of loss due to the wheels HP)
here is why we multiply by 1.22
444.88 x 1.22 = 542.7 which is 543HP ..........#7
I know russ you did all that to get the 1.22 I really happy that I learn very nice lesson from you thank you so much and sorry guyz it's a lot of math but this's how it works
2 - HP at the crank = 500 = X
3 - Hp at the wheels = 400
4 - loss due to drivetrain = 500 – 400 = 100 = Y
................................................( X - 400 = Y )
5 - 100 / 500 = 0.20 (20% loss due to drivetrain)
......Y / X = 0.20
6 - 100 / 400 = 0.25 (percentage of loss to the wheels HP ) = Z
7 - so 400 x 1.25 = 500
8 - let’s apply this on BPANOS’s car
9 - we don’t know the HP at the crank lets call it = X......................#2
10 - HP at the wheels = 444.88
11 - We don’t know the loss due drivetrain let’s call it = Y which is = (X – 444.88 = Y )...............#4
12 - Y / X = 0.18 (18% loss due to drivetrain ) .............#5
13 - Y / X = Z we don’t know the percentage due to the wheels HP #6
14 – .........................................Y = X – 444.88 from .....................#11
15 – Y / X = 0.18 that means Y = 0.18X..............#12........................mult iply both side by X
16 – Y = X – 444.88 ...................= 0.18X .............................from #14 & #15
17 - X – 444.88 ...........................= 0.18X
18 - X – 444.88 – 0.18X .............= 0.18X – 0.18X ..................add - 0.18 for both side
19 - X – 444.88 – 0.18X .............= zero ...................................0.18 - 0.18 cancel eachother
20 - X- 444.88 +444.88 – 0.18X= zero + 444.88 ....................add 444.88 for both side
21 - X – 0.18X ............................= 444.88 ............................. - 444.88 + 444.88 cancel
22 - X(1 – 0.18) ..........................= 444.88 ...............................commen factor X
23 - X( 0.82 ) ..............................= 444.88 .................................divide by 0.82
24 - X( 0.82 ) / (0.82) .................= 444.88 / (0.82)
25 - X = 542. 54 which is 543 = X the HP at crank ......... .........#2
from #4 ..........X - 444.88 = Y which is 543 - 444.88 = 98.12 = Y
lose due drivtrain = 98.12
from #6 ..........98.12 / 444.88 = 0.22 (22% percentage of loss due to the wheels HP)
here is why we multiply by 1.22
444.88 x 1.22 = 542.7 which is 543HP ..........#7
I know russ you did all that to get the 1.22 I really happy that I learn very nice lesson from you thank you so much and sorry guyz it's a lot of math but this's how it works
Last edited by cayenne_ksa; May 27, 2006 at 03:16 AM.
anybody got an apirin? my head is killing me 
i've got a pretty decent amount of dyno time under my belt now.
from what i've told, it's fairly accepted to use 15% for driveline losses on a C2.
the formula i have been working off is RWHP/.85=crank HP
that's what i was told to use anyway. there is another way to do it, but i don't remember right now.
is this way oversimplifying it? it seems to work.

i've got a pretty decent amount of dyno time under my belt now.
from what i've told, it's fairly accepted to use 15% for driveline losses on a C2.
the formula i have been working off is RWHP/.85=crank HP
that's what i was told to use anyway. there is another way to do it, but i don't remember right now.
is this way oversimplifying it? it seems to work.
Originally Posted by deputydog95
anybody got an apirin? my head is killing me 
i've got a pretty decent amount of dyno time under my belt now.
from what i've told, it's fairly accepted to use 15% for driveline losses on a C2.
the formula i have been working off is RWHP/.85=crank HP
that's what i was told to use anyway. there is another way to do it, but i don't remember right now.
is this way oversimplifying it? it seems to work.

i've got a pretty decent amount of dyno time under my belt now.
from what i've told, it's fairly accepted to use 15% for driveline losses on a C2.
the formula i have been working off is RWHP/.85=crank HP
that's what i was told to use anyway. there is another way to do it, but i don't remember right now.
is this way oversimplifying it? it seems to work.
RWHP/0.85=crank HP=RWHP*1.176 Both correct, just the method of how to get thereis different.
Whew. Lots of red wine last night. This all was so much clearer then! And thanks to Abdullah for explaining the mathematical steps much better than I ever could have, truly! But for most of our purposes, probably simpler just to use measured rwhp, which is why I have it in my sig line . . .
Last edited by MexicoBlue; May 27, 2006 at 09:15 AM.
bpanos: how did you determine how much boost you're running? do you have an aftermarket gauge?
here's my dyno chart after i had the suncoast headers installed. not to shabby for a 2002 3.6 liter
it was measured on a dynojet as well.
here's my dyno chart after i had the suncoast headers installed. not to shabby for a 2002 3.6 liter
it was measured on a dynojet as well.
funny thing is that VF builds in a +-1 psi variance. i would have it checked if i were you to make sure it's running the advertised boost. if you're a little on the low side you may be able to tap into 30 or so more HP.




